Still haven't had a lot of time to think about his response to me; however his answer makes me think that perhaps he might believe that if there are errors in Scripture it only means that the word "inspiration" doesn't mean there are no errors in Scripture. It would means that the message is inspired, but not the human author's errors.
In other words God inspired the message, but not every jot and title.

Not sure if that is what he believes, but I am trying to understand his reasoning.