Originally Posted by John_C
I ran across this question on another forum. I'm not good in answering these questions except to say that God is completely just and loving. Would anyone like to clear it up succinctly?

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Q: If God alone grants repentance, then why does God become angry at unrepentance? For example, in the letters of Revelation, Christ said that He gave Jezebel time to repent, but she didn't, so He's going to throw her into a bed of sickness. But if she's incapable of repenting (or you can substitute sinning Israel in various OT situations), then why give her "time"? She wouldn't have been any more able to repent two months later than two months earlier. Or, to give another example, unregenerate Israel had no more potential or ability to repent 390 days into the Babylonian siege than on day one. It's as if God has a repentance ray-gun sitting by His side in Heaven, and He is getting wrathful toward people, clans, and nations who constitutionally can't repent, but who would repent if He would just shoot them with His ray-gun.
That which God requires and commands does not of necessity grant the ability to obedience. For example, the first and great commandment is to love God with all your heart, mind, soul, and strength. But there is none but Christ who has the ability to render that requirement. Although several lessons are evident from the examples given, one in particular stands out; a demonstration of the willful and sinful obstinacy of fallen man to conform himself/herself to the divine will of God. I apologize ahead of time if my "down and dirty" quickie response is inadequate or confusing. grin

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simul iustus et peccator

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