<blockquote><font size=1>In reply to:</font><hr>[color:"blue"]As far as Christ using unleavened bread, wouldn't that be because such was required by the Passover? I would think that for Him not to use unleavened bread would have been disobedient to the law, which He would not do, and hence there was no alternative.</font><hr></blockquote><p>Certainly! [img]http://www.the-highway.com/w3timages/icons/grin.gif" alt="grin" title="grin[/img] But how does that impact on us today? Are you suggesting:<ol>[*]that the ONLY reason which Christ used the traditional unleaven bread was because it was required by law . . .</li>[*]that because Christ "fulfilled" the law it is no longer applicable to the Church . . .</li>[*]that there is no symbolic or typological meaning in unleaven bread . . .</li>[/LIST]~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~<br><br>And you would respond with:<ul>[*]All of the above?</li>[*]Some of the above?</li>[*]None of the above?</li>[*]You personally prefer unleaven bread?</li>[/LIST]In His Grace,


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simul iustus et peccator

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