But, in those instances where someone was saved, Jesus always accompanied his miracles with teaching, right?
True godliness is a sincere feeling which loves God as Father as much as it fears and reverences Him as Lord, embraces His righteousness, and dreads offending Him worse than death~ Calvin
When did (timing) the DEAF hear the word? When were they saved; prior to their deafness being healed or after, or .... were they even saved (Mark 7:32f)? Are ALL deaf people lost if they cannot hear the Word of God ONLY? Could miracles, etc., be considered a media that God communicates His Word through? Is God's judgment a media that God communicates His Word? What about Luke 18:15f ? Were these infants part of the Kingdom of God? Did these infants understand the Word of God?
I am not sure which is why I said earlier that it was a bit confusing, which has also become known by others responses also. I answered the question, as I do every question, on exactly what the questions asks.
Both you and Grace_Alone are correct. I definitely misread the question of the Poll, which is: Is the Preaching, Teaching, and or Reading of scripture <span style="background-color:yellow">the only way</span> to allow the Holy Spirit to work in the sinners heart? <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/stupidme.gif" alt="" />
Thus, my vote of "No" is obviously incorrect. My thanks for jarring my brain on this one. <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/giggle.gif" alt="" />
In all fairness, I think the question first asked could be taken to mean ANY communication of the written Word, whether by hearing, reading or otherwise communicated, e.g., signing to the deaf. However, the WCF does make the exception for those intellectually challenged, infants, etc. to those means which we most associate as being used to communicate the Gospel. However, (am I vascillating here? <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/laugh.gif" alt="" /> ) it is my firm belief that even in those exceptional cases, the essence of the Gospel IS communicated to the mind/heart of such elect individuals directly by the Holy Spirit. So, the answer would still be a qualified, "Yes", IMHO.
I'm glad you corrected that. After I read you defense of voting "NO" I had to re-read it a few times to make sure I didn't misunderstand it when I voted YES.
Romans 10:14-17
"How then shall they call on Him in whom they have not believed? And how shall they believe in Him of whom they have not heard? And how shall they hear without a preacher? And how shall they preach unless they are sent? As it is written:
"How beautiful are the feet of those who preach the gospel of peace, Who bring glad tidings of good things!"
But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Isaiah says, "LORD, who has believed our report?" So then faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of God."
The Spirit will convict the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment: (John 16:8), when He, the Spirit of truth, has come, He will guide you into all truth (John 16:13), and He will take what is mine and declare it unto you (John 16:14).
Wes
When I survey the wondrous cross on which the Prince of Glory died, my richest gain I count but loss and pour contempt on all my pride. - Isaac Watts