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This is where Catholics feel we are vulnerable, could I get some help with the counterpoints to Akin's commnetary on Justification



http://www.cin.org/users/james/files/pastpres.htm


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But however attractive the single, once-for-all view of justification may be to some, there are serious exegetical considerations weighing against it. This may be seen by looking at how the New Testament handles the story of Abraham.

One of the classic Old Testament texts on justification is Genesis 15:6. This verse, which figures prominently in Paul's discussion of justification in Romans and Galatians, states that when God gave the promise to Abraham that his descendants would be as the stars of the sky (Gen. 15:5, cf. Rom. 4:18-22) Abraham "believed God and it was reckoned to him as righteousness" (Rom. 4:3). This passage clearly teaches us that Abraham was justified at the time he believed the promise concerning the number of his descendants.

Now, if justification is a once-for-all event, rather than a process, then that means that Abraham could not receive justification either before or after Genesis 15:6. However, Scripture indicates that he did both.

First, the book of Hebrews tells us that

"By faith Abraham obeyed when he was called to set out for a place that he was to receive as an inheritance, not knowing where he was going." (Hebrews 11:8)

Every Protestant will passionately agree that the subject of Hebrews 11 is saving faith

But when did he have this faith? The passage tells us: Abraham had it "when he was called to go out to the place he would afterward receive." The problem for the once-for-all view of justification is that is that the call of Abraham to leave Haran is recorded in Genesis 12:1-4 three chapters before he is justified in 15:6. We therefore know that Abraham was justified well before (in fact, years before) he was justified in Gen. 15:6.

But if Abraham had saving faith back in Genesis 12, then he was justified back in Genesis 12. Yet Paul clearly tells us that he was also justified in Genesis 15. So justification must be more than just a once-for-all event.

But just as Abraham received justification before Genesis 15:6, he also received it afterwards, for the book of James tells us,

"Was not our ancestor Abraham justified by works when he offered his son Isaac on the altar? You see that faith was active along with his works, and faith was brought to completion by the works. Thus the scripture was fulfilled that says, 'Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned to him as righteousness,' and he was called the friend of God." (James 2:21-23)

James thus tells us "[w]as not our ancestor Abraham justified . . . when he offered his son Isaac on the altar?" In this instance, the faith which he had displayed in the initial promise of descendants was fulfilled in his actions (see also Heb. 11:17-19), thus bringing to fruition the statement of Genesis 15:6 that he believed God and it was reckoned to him as righteousness.

Abraham therefore received justification The problem for the once-for-all view is that the offering of Isaac is recorded in Gen. 22:1-18 seven chapters after Gen. 15:6. Therefore, just as Abraham was justified before 15:6 when he left Haran for the promised land, so he was also justified again when he offered Isaac after 15:6.

Therefore, we see that Abraham was justified on at least three different occasions: he was justified in Genesis 12, when he first left Haran and went to the promised land; he was justified in Genesis 15, when he believed the promise concerning his descendants; and he was justified in Genesis 22, when he offered his first promised descendant on the altar.

As a result, justification must be seen, not as a once-for-all event, but as a process which continues throughout the believer's life. In fact, it is even a process which extends beyond the believer's life. This is shown by passages in Scripture where Paul indicates that there is a sense in which our justification is still future:

" . . . for not the hearers of the law are just in the sight of God, but the doers of the law will be justified;" (Romans 2:13)

"Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the law is the knowledge of sin." (Romans 3:20)

Commenting on the second of these passages, the famous Protestant exegete, James D.G. Dunn points out that Paul's statement alludes to Psalm 142:2 and then remarks,

"The metaphor in the psalm is of a servant being called to account before his master, but in the context here [in Romans] the imagery of final judgement is to the fore . . . Against the view that Paul sees 'justification' simply as an act which marks the beginning of a believer's life, as a believer, here is a further example [in addition to 2:13] of the verb used for a final verdict, not excluding the idea of the final verdict at the end of life . . . "


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AC,

Personally, I find James Akin's "proof" of an ongoing justification in the person of Abraham empty.

1. Hermeneutical: The NT interprets the OT; a basic tenet of biblical interpretation. Thus, Paul's propositional statement in Rom 4:3 takes precedence over Gen 15:6. All the text in Genesis says is that Abraham obeyed God in leaving his home with the promise of an inheritance offered. This is but of many instances of Abraham rendering obedience. There are many examples of Israelites who offered sacrifices to God and who did many other acts of obedience who perished in unbelief. Bare obedience does not equal saving faith.

2. Exegetical: Akin's reference to James as proving that Abraham was 'justified', i.e., was declared righteous (cp. Rom 4:3) is fallacious as any Protestant will testify. James is bringing up the matter of evidences of righteousness which flow from saving faith, not the imputation of righteousness upon the exercising of saving faith. There are many examples of what James is focusing upon in Scripture, e.g., Jer 3:11; Ezek 16:51,52; Matt 11:19; Lk 16:15 and Rom 3:4.

3. James Dunn: This is a most welcome inclusion to Akin's argument, i.e., to quote Dunn. Why? Because as those of us who are critical of NPP and Federal Vision know and some of us who have known from the beginning, these positions and others similar to them are nothing more than Roman soteriology in drag. evilgrin Putting on different clothes has no effect on the individual wearing them. Here, a Roman Catholic shows himself to be in essential agreement with those most critical of NPP, FV, Shepherdism, et al in that he reveals that they are essentially in agreement with the Roman Catholic doctrine of justification. Thank you Mr. Akin! BigThumbUp


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Thanks! But I could still forsee a counterpoint....

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20He staggered not at the promise of God through unbelief; but was strong in faith, giving glory to God;

21And being fully persuaded that, what he had promised, he was able also to perform.

22And therefore it was imputed to him for righteousness.

23Now it was not written for his sake alone, that it was imputed to him;

24But for us also, to whom it shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead;

25Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification.


Paul is using Abraham as spoken of in Genesis as a case study in Justification by faith, correct?

But he is not alluding to Abraham to describe or explain that there is a point or moment one is Justified?

Do you see where I'm still confused, a bit.......

Basically Catholics like Akin use this passage in Genesis to dispute Justification as a single moment in time, what say you to that charge? thanks!!!


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AC,

No, I do not understand your confusion. Akin asserts that justification is a "process" worked out by the individual. We assert that justification is a "one time declaration" of God based upon the merits of Christ to believing sinners that they ARE justified; not might be, not will be IF they do xxxx, and not will be again at some future time.

Romans 4 clearly teaches that justification is apart from works and only through faith alone. And btw, faith doesn't justify... Christ justifies. Faith takes hold of Christ. Paul writes that Abraham believed God and it was reckoned, i.e., imputed (Gr. elogistha from logizomai) to him for righteousness. Paul cannot be made to say that this was but one of many instances where God imputed righteousness to Abraham for some act of obedience, for the entire chapter and the one proceeding is a polemic against justification by works, faith + works, or anything else.

In the verses you quoted, Paul is referring to Genesis 15, not 12 and not 17. Nowhere does Paul say that upon the basis of Abraham's offering up Isaac was righteousness imputed to him. The same is true of Genesis 12 when Abraham left his home country. And since it is Christ's righteousness which is imputed, then what more is needed?... a process of good works on the part of the justified one? Hardly. To assert such is to deny the sufficiency of Christ's atonement and His perfect active obedience, which both Rome, NPP, FV, etc., believe.

Some Romanists will say that they too teach justification by grace — by Christ’s righteousness, in fact. But the righteousness of Christ which they claim justifies is not Christ’s own personal righteousness reckoned or credited or given or imputed to believers. Romanists refer to the righteousness which Christ works into the life of the believer or infuses into him in his own living and behavior. It is not Christ’s personal righteousness but the believer’s personal righteousness, which he performs by the grace of God.

It is Christ’s righteousness versus the believer’s own righteousness. It is Christ’s achievement versus the Christian’s achievement. It is an imputed righteousness not an infused righteousness. It is a gift of God versus an accomplishment of man. These two righteousnesses are as different as righteousnesses could conceivably be.

Have you read Joel Beeke's article Justification by Faith Alone (The Relation of Faith to Justification)?


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actually rereading your post I think I get it, it seems Paul and that whole verse is speaking of the results of saving faith and how we are justified by faith not the moment of justification....

so would you say we make a distinction between the doctrines of 'justification by faith' and justification (the moment a sinner is absolved of sin)????





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Originally Posted by AC.
actually rereading your post I think I get it, it seems Paul and that whole verse is speaking of the results of saving faith and how we are justified by faith not the moment of justification....

so would you say we make a distinction between the doctrines of 'justification by faith' and justification (the moment a sinner is absolved of sin)???
1. Paul is building the case for justification being based upon the work of Christ and given to those who believe and not work.

2. Abraham is held out as the paradigm of one who did NOT work, but simply believed God and His promise(s).

3. Paul specifically references Gen 15 and says that at THAT TIME God imputed Christ's righteousness to believing Abraham.

4. Everything following Gen 15 exemplifies Abraham as a justified sinner which is what James focuses upon.

I don't quite understand your question, re: a distinction between the doctrines of 'justification by faith' and justification (the moment a sinner is absolved of sin). Care to expand on that a bit so this old brain can grasp it? grin


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Akin is saying that Abe had saving faith in v.12, how would you counter that if he was not justified till after as highlighted in v.15?

AC


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Originally Posted by AC.
Akin is saying that Abe had saving faith in v.12, how would you counter that if he was not justified till after as highlighted in v.15?
Do you mean v.12 (what book/chapter) or Genesis chapter 12?... same for v.15.

What I do know is that Paul, under the inspiration of God wrote that Abraham was justified when he believed God after having a vision at the Oaks of Marmre. And at that time, God made a covenant with Abraham and sealed that covenant by passing through the divided pieces of a heifer. Paul specifically quotes directly from Gen. 15:6 where it is written: "And he believed in Jehovah; and he reckoned it to him for righteousness.". So, in two places in Scripture it is written that THERE at that specific time and place, God imputed to believing Abraham righteousness. Can Akin show any other text where it is said that God imputed righteousness to Abraham when he believed God other than that event recorded in Genesis 15? If not, then all Akin is left with is eisegesis, speculation, and a wresting of Scripture to support his heretical doctrine.


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Sorry I meant chp 12, but I think you clarified the issue for me, thanks....and thanks for linking the beeke article.....


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When I was wrestling through what to believe about the message of James chapter 2. I think verses 18 & 19 actually were the verses that clarified what I believed on the subject.

"But someone will say, "You have faith, and I have works." Show me your faith without works, and I will show you my faith by my works. You believe there is one God. You do well. Even the demons believe-and tremble." NKJV

True faith always results in works. Empty faith is not true faith; it can neither save nor produce good works.

"Just as a motor produces power because electrical current flows into it, so a Christian produces good deeds because true faith empowers him." (New Testament Commentary on James by Simon J Kistemaker)

Verse 21 offers no conflict with Paul. James appeals to Gen. 22, while Paul appeals to Gen. 15. In the sight of God Abraham was justified long before he offers Isaac on the alter. Abraham is justified to human eyes in Gen. 22 when he shows his faith in obedience.

Tom


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