In his Modern Exposition of the LBCF (which actually uses the WCF and the Savoy Confession also), Samuel Waldron makes the statement that prior to the fall Adam was on probation and he failed his probation. He then said similarly that Jesus was on probation, but passed His probation. In discussing this with a group of men who I am studying the book with, we all felt uncomfortable about his terminology. Is is right to use this terminology when describing Adam and Jesus? Tom
I prefer the traditional term used to describe both prelapsarian Adam and Christ: COVENANT!
1. God established a "covenant" with Adam to which Adam was bound to live according to God's stipulations. If Adam obeyed all that God required of him then he would (continue) live. Failure to obey the covenant would result in death. To use the term "probation" it generally means that there was a set time frame to which the covenant applied. I find no time limit in Scripture that would support that view.
2. God established a "covenant" with the Son, aka: The Covenant of Peace/Redemption to which the Son willingly submitted Himself. There was no time limits on this covenant either since Lord Christ being the 'second Adam" was to fulfill what was required by Adam but on a much larger scale; all those whom had been predestinated to life eternal. The Son took upon Himself human flesh, died, rose from the dead, retained that body, albeit an incorruptible one and will forever retain the two natures as the Christ; God and Man.
That's funny! I was sort of joking. Had no idea there was a button for that! Does that give a general Highway 'like' or does it 'like' the specific topic?
Trust the past to God's mercy, the present to God's love and the future to God's providence." - St. Augustine Hiraeth
Gotribe, I have used it before and noticed that it posts to my facebook page. From there, other non-Highway members see the thread (if it is a public forum) and can comment but only on facebook.