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Take a mass-murderer for example. Of course, every time he murders someone, he is carrying out God's eternal plan. So could you explain a little more in this situation what you mean by "pleasing to Him". I mean, are you saying that the sinner himself is actually pleasing to God, even though he is still sinning and is morally responsible for his actions, because he is accomplishing God's purposes?

What about the most significant murder in the world? Acts 2:23 is the best Biblical example here:

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Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:

The plan of God before the foundation of world (Eph 1) was that His Son should die for His elect. This was pleasing to God—after all He initiated it (it was His eternal plan, allowed it to come forth, but more than allowing, it was His determinate counsel, etc.). In so much as God’s plan of redemption was carried out He was pleased. This reveals His sovereignty in all things, (“ye shall know that I am the LORD your God”), etc. There is a sense in which God is pleased in “all things” that happen, in that His sovereignty is being displayed, etc (Rom 9:17, 22-23), but He himself is not accountable for sin, etc. (yes, there is a mystery in all this...). Now, God was also displeased as well as He hates the actions of sinners—and the sinner themselves, etc. and He holds them morally responsible, etc.

Reformed and Always Reforming,