What is your interpretation of this text? I have several specific questions:

1. Some would argue that the anointing/prayer for the sick was only for the apostolic age. What is the basis for this belief? Is it problematic to this position that this command is given to elders and not apostles?

2. Obviously the healing of the person is not due to a lack of faith on their own part. It's a matter of the sovereign will of God. But is this "prayer of faith" a certain assurance God gives the elders that this particular church member will be healed?

I am hearing this from a Reformed person (I won't go into details since this is a public forum). This person says that this "prayer of faith" will always result in healing, though it is not something a person can muster up. It is a special assurance that only God gives, just as faith in general is a gift from God. He says that if the elders believe they have been given this faith at a certain time, and then the person they pray over is not healed, that they were mistaken that God had indeed given a prayer of faith. So God gets the glory either way, and no one will be chastised for "lack of faith."

I will have to read R. Kent Hughes' commentary on James, but apparently Hughes agrees with this position too.

Thanks!

True godliness is a sincere feeling which loves God as Father as much as it fears and reverences Him as Lord, embraces His righteousness, and dreads offending Him worse than death~ Calvin