The doctrine of substitutionary atonement is the soteriological concept of paganism and is non-perfectable since first degree murder must be committed in any attempt to put that soteriological divice into effect. Jesus Christ was murdered when he was crucified. See Acts 7:52. Murder cannot ever be a direct benefit. It is a sin. Now with that said; What is the corporate sin that was committed about fifty days previously and then repented of in Acts 2 in order to be added to the church Jesus Christ is head of?
1. And how is vicarious substitutionary atonement pagan?
2. The Scriptures are repleat with statements that Christ's atonement was substitutionary... e.g., the myriad instances where the inspired writers used the Greek word
huper, i.e., in place of, in behalf of, etc. (1Cor 15:3; Gal 1:4; Heb 1:3; 1Pet 1:24, etc.) Also, Christ is said to have been a "propitiation", Greek
hilaskomi, i.e., to appease the wrath of God through the removal of that which offends, aka: sins, (Rom 3:25; 1Jh 2:2, 4:10, etc. And just a couple more proofs, it is written that Christ "gave Himself for us (elect)" Gal 1:4, 2:20; Eph 5:25; 1Tim 2:6; Titus 2:14, etc. Lastly, see also the use of the word "ransom", the Greek word
lutron (Matt 20:28; Mk 10:45; 1Tim 2:6).
3. Christ's crucifixion was foreordained of God and it was the Son's agreement to give His own life in behalf of those whom the Father had predestined to save, i.e., the Lord Christ voluntarily gave up His own life in order to redeem those whom He came to save (Jh 10:15,17).
There are myriad articles here on The Highway that deal with the vicarious substitutionary death of Christ which you can reference
The Atonement.
The doctrine of the vicarious substitutionary atonement is the apex of orthodox biblical Christianity. You obviously are "outside the camp" and stand against the one true Church for which Christ shed His blood (Acts 20:28; Rom 5:9)
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