1. Your entire position seems to rest on reason, i.e., looking at the life of Christ and then concluding that He 'loved' all men. Contrariwise, my position rests upon the entire biblical record, especially how God interacted with mankind throughout the beginning of history. When I view the life of Christ I must maintain the oneness of the Godhead and not bifurcate the Father from the incarnate Son in any way whatsoever. For example, we can clearly see that God has loved only certain people from the beginning, e.g.,

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Deuteronomy 7:6-10 (ASV) "For thou art a holy people unto Jehovah thy God: Jehovah thy God hath chosen thee to be a people for his own possession, above all peoples that are upon the face of the earth. Jehovah did not set his love upon you, nor choose you, because ye were more in number than any people; for ye were the fewest of all peoples: but because Jehovah loveth you, and because he would keep the oath which he sware unto your fathers, hath Jehovah brought you out with a mighty hand, and redeemed you out of the house of bondage, from the hand of Pharaoh king of Egypt. Know therefore that Jehovah thy God, he is God, the faithful God, who keepeth covenant and lovingkindness with them that love him and keep his commandments to a thousand generations, and repayeth them that hate him to their face, to destroy them: he will not be slack to him that hateth him, he will repay him to his face."
You must admit that there is a perspicuous distinction between the people of Israel and all the other peoples of the earth which is stated as God having 'loved' them. And remember, that not all Israel was of Israel; the nation being a shadow of the visible church. In fact, the overwhelming population of Israel throughout history died in unbelief. On many occasions we read where the Jews were called to repentance and faith in God else they would perish. The Gospel was preached among them in order to redeem the elect. But rarely did God send the gospel to any other nation on earth. Only in the New Testament do we see the universal proclamation of the Gospel and God's holiness and wrath were foremost in that message. I had the privilege of serving as a head judge for the theology debates held by an association of homeschoolers. One of the contestant's held the premise that there is a hell because God is love. Needless to say, her presentation was unintelligible; it made no sense because it was 'non-sense'.

Let me stress once again, that I hold that God is kind, benevolent, and longsuffering toward all men. But I find little evidence to conclude that God has a 'universal love' for all mankind, no less than there is a 'common grace' given to all mankind. There is nothing 'common' about God's grace. It is always salvific in nature and efficacious in its application. I insist that speaking of universal love and common grace diminishes the actual, real love of God which He has for those whom He has eternally foreloved to be redeemed in Christ. God's love and grace are incomprehensible, or should be to those who have been given a heart of flesh, a mind to understand and eyes that can see the truth of God and all that exists.

2. I am wondering where you ever got the idea that I believe, "...how you can logically say that Christ was our perfect example when His requirements for fulfilling the second table of the law were different than ours." I certainly don't hold to any such silliness as that. IF you are referring to the SUMMARY of the law, e.g., as found in Matt. 22:37-39, then again we differ in the use of the word 'love'; "love thy neighbor as thyself". a) The first command is that WE love God completely. b)The second command is OUR duty to show kindness to all men and care for those in need, etc. Yes, Christ fulfilled all the law perfectly by loving God, His Father, with all His heart, soul, mind and strength, and He loved all men as Himself, i.e., He was benevolent to all men, but He LOVED His own and gave Himself for them and them alone. From this I simply cannot formulate a doctrine that God has a universal 'love' for all mankind when the wording is so rarely found vs. God loving a remnant of fallen mankind from all eternity, sending His Son to redeem them through His atoning sacrifice, adopting them as sons and filling them with His Spirit. There are far more passages which openly state that God hates sinners and even more that demonstrate this fact than there are passages which speak of some kind of 'love' for all mankind.

3. In regard to John 3:16, I will stand upon my exegesis of the original text and dispute the English translations or at least the understanding of the wording of the English translations which has become so popular. John Owen, Arthur Pink and John Gerstner, as but 3 examples, held the same interpretation and understanding as my own.

4. Yes, Christians can speak without end about the love of God, but that is AWAYS and FOREVER the redeeming love of God in Christ which plucked them out of the pit they once lived and set them in the heavenlies with Christ as adopted sons to share in the glory of God.


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simul iustus et peccator

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