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Adam had fellowship with God so why would he desire anything? That would have been covetousness. It was God who said "It is not good for the man that he should be alone." not Adam.
If it was covetous, then God sinned--for He fulfilled Adam's so-called "covetousness"!!! You also by implication make marriage, which God ordained, a sin!!! Before sin entered, could there not be complete fellowship with God within marriage (Matt 18:20)?

Is there not perfect communion within the relationship of the Trinity itself? Adam was not complete until he had a help-meet (just as the Trinity is not complete without the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost--though each is complete within themself--but this is another series of posts). If he was not complete (there is a certain completeness in being "one" and another in being "two") how could he have "full" fellowship with God without his God-ordained companion? Man was always met to have a help-meet, except in those God appointed special cases ....

Would not Adam looking at the nature of things (i.e. male and female), have wondered where his counterpart was? Why did not Adam "argue" (which one may do without sin, i.e. remember Lot's case) with God? Instead Adam participated with Him (Gen 2:20). Did not Adam declare that he was "one" (Gen 2:24) with his wife, revealing the union that God prepared was "very good" (Gen 1:31)?

Honestly, IMO Adam did not have time to be lonely initially--God kept him just a little busy (thus, Bavinck probably should have used the phrase "would have been lonely," which I believe is his intent by the rest of what you cited .... ). IMO I think it is safe to say, Adam would have been lonely for God himself said, "It is not good that the man should be alone" (Gen 2:18).

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Reformed and Always Reforming,