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Joe k said:


I have a hard time seeing in the writ where it states morally perfect, even implicently. Then fell from grace. Just rings of Pelagious to me. Morally perfect to me means could not sin. So my definition maybe wrong. And the Hebrew very good, does not necessarily mean morally perfect.

JPK

Well, if Adam was without sin prior to the fall . . . was he then morally imperfect?

Kyle

I tell you, this man went down to his house justified.