Originally Posted by Tom
Is there anything from the context and meaning in the applicable passages that show what is actually meant
by the word “Foreknowledge” or “foreknow”.
Yes, if one properly exegetes the passage. IF <-- "foreknew" is simply prescience (knowledge about), then what would have been that knowledge about those individuals that precipitated God to predestinate them, consequently call them, justify them and finally glorify them? scratchchin And, if there was something God perceived in them, then most importantly 1) salvation must be of works and not grace, 2) God is not omniscient for before He allegedly perceived that whatever was of those individuals, that knowledge was unknown to God. Oh, and don't forget to include another salient question concerning God's "prescience"... where did these individuals come from? Did not God create them and determine their beginning and their end? Are you beginning to see the impassable problems if one defines "foreknew" as simply knowledge about? Ephesians 1 certainly answers the question concerning those whom He foreknew. [Linked Image]


[Linked Image]

simul iustus et peccator

[Linked Image]