Originally Posted by JesusFan
That woulkd apply only to the originals themselves though
IF that was true, and since we do not possess the "original themselves", then doesn't that mean we today do not have an inspired, infallible nor inerrant Bible? Methinks you should be far more concerned about the myriad faulty and corrupt translations, e.g., those based upon the "Dynamic Equivalence" theory vs. the "Formal Equivalence" theory. What we do have are so close to the originals that it is an exercise in futility to try and prove they are unreliable. That argument is the favorite of the unbelievers of this world in order to dismiss the Bible as having any, never mind, absolute authority that comes directly from God.

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simul iustus et peccator

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