First, I was only meaning that if a Presbyterian was true to his hermeneutic for "Repent and be baptized" as not speaking to infants then he has no reason to assume that "a man must examine himself" is speaking to infants either. Because the defense given in a Presbyterian/Baptist discussion is always that "Repent and be baptized" is not a passage referring to infants.

Secondly, I wasn't trying to imply bad things about baptists. In fact, I meant to imply that a Baptist is more consistent in his interpretation of "Repent and be baptized" with "A man must examine himself."