The Highway Forums General Discussion Open Forum Old Testament Law

<blockquote><font size=1>In reply to:</font><hr>[color:"blue"]When a man walks in agape (self for others), he expresses ALL the requirements of the OT moral law plus much, much more.</font><hr></blockquote><p>If the law of God, according to the Lord Christ is summarized totally by loving God with all your heart, mind, soul and strength, how can it be possible to surpass them? Further, in every mention in Scripture where God "loves" a person, group, etc.... it is always expressed in an action. Thus "love" to be true love must be co-joined with something that is done. That which is "done" must be perfectly holy. That which is "holy" is God's moral law.<blockquote>Romans 7:12 (ASV) So that the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and righteous, and good. . . . (22) For I delight in the law of God after the inward man:</blockquote>Since you have not chosen to answer any of my previous questions, perhaps you will at least answer this one?<br><br>QUEST: Since it is your position that the Moral Law is not binding upon a Christian how does one know that he is "walking in agape (self for others)," if there is no moral standard by which this "love" is expressed? Jesus said if we "love" Him, we will keep His commandments, which are surely one and the same as that which He Himself was obligated to keep and the very same commandments which He gave to Moses on Sinai, since He only did and taught that which belonged to the Father.<br><br>BTW, I'm curious whether you have taken the opportunity to read any of the articles that you have been referred to? And yes, the Sabbath issue has been discussed here before. A simply search will find the different threads/posts in the database.<br><br>In His Grace,