The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum For Whom Did Christ Die?

hisalone,

1. I think you are confusing the issue; "for whom did Christ die?" (the efficacy of Christ's death) with "for whom is the grace of God in Christ available?" (indiscriminate offer of the Gospel).

2. What was God's purpose in sending Christ? Was it to actually secure the salvation of a fixed number of sinners (the elect)? Or, was it only to make salvation possible, i.e., it didn't actually secure salvation for anyone?

3. You are certainly entitled to disagree with John Owen's treatise but the fact is NO ONE has to this day ever written nor offered a rebuttal against it. His treatment of the atonement is so thorough and biblically sound, a valid argument against it doesn't exist.

4. Re: limiting the grace of God. This is one of the most common objections launched against the historic doctrine of the atonement. However, both sides limit the atonement. The semi-Pelagian/Arminian view limits the efficacy of it because it fails to actually secure the salvation of anyone in itself. Secondly, it limits the grace of God in that it says that God had no one in particular in mind to save when He sent Christ into the world. Thirdly, it limits the sovereignty of God for theoretically, Christ could have died in vain should no one believe on Him. The Reformed/Calvinist view limits the number of recipients to those whom the Father predestinated to salvation in Christ. Thus the grace of God is exalted for Christ actually accomplished that which the Father intended; "he shall save his people from their sins".

Spurgeon marvelously illustrated the two views with a bridge:

1. The Calvinists have a narrow bridge which reaches the other side.
1. The semi-Pelagians/Arminians have a bridge that is wide but stops half-way.

Perhaps you would appreciate this article: Sufficient for All, by Jim Elliot and/or Limited Atonement, by Loraine Boettner.

In His grace,