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hisalone said:

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CovenantInBlood said:
2) His distinction between demons and angels, that angels have "celestial bodies" and demons are bodiless, is unwarranted. Angels are spiritual beings, having no bodies, although angels can sometimes appear in corporeal form.
The angels who appeared to Abraham did eat. Of course this is speculation, and I only do this as a discussion, but if they can eat Gen. 19:3-5, then I believe they could have sexual relations. This explains the idea of them leaving their first abode, they chose to have physical form to have relations with the daughters of men.
In all honesty, this transcends even "speculation". What warrant is there to jump from eating food to spiritual beings having sexual relations with humans? Secondly, these angels who accompanied the pre-incarnate Christ, Who remained behind with Abraham, were "sons of God" (ministers of God) and were under commission to accomplish a specific task; destroy Sodom, Gomorrah and surrounding cities/nations which were practicing abominable sexual sins. This eliminates any further idea that gives rise to the reason given above, i.e., fallen angels left their first above for the purpose of having sex with human women. The passage simply offers no information nor warrant.

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hisalone said:

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CovenantInBlood said:
4) For Paul, these are all variegated descriptions of the same thing, namely, Satan and his demonic hosts (which are fallen angels).
If the fallen angels are bound as said in Jude 6, then our battle is only against Satan. I believe there are spiritual forces in heaven and on earth which we battle. Why can't it be the demon forces? We saw very many cases of demon possession spoken of in the Bible, which by the way, there are no instances of demon possession prior to the flood.
Perhaps you are assigning a meaning to "bound" that is incorrect? Even Satan is "bound" and has been since the first appearance of the Lord Christ. (cf. Matt 12:29; Mk 3:27; Rev. 20:2) The meaning is that these fallen hosts are greatly hindered as to what they can do. God has hedged them in, so to speak, as is evident from Job 1:6ff. ALL of creation, including angels both holy and fallen, are under the direct rule of God.

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hisalone said:

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CovenantInBlood said:
5) Indeed, Jesus' recounting of this time in history in Luke 17:26-27 would seem to indicate that it was human beings only, not any fallen angels, who were marrying and being given in marriage.
I don't quite understand his argument about the Nephilim, but as for the fallen angels having bodies, again, that explains them leaving their first abode. The passage of Matt. 20:39 can possibly be speaking of the elect angels, not the fallen angels. Also, people always point to this verse to say that the angels did not have sexual relations, but isn't that an assumption? If they took a bodily form, they could possibly have sexual relations. As in Jude 6,7 a relationship of gross proportions, an unnatural sexual union, like Sodom.
The reason for fallen angels leaving heaven to go to earth to have sex with human women has been aptly addressed and refuted above. Those angels who followed Satan in his rebellion were cast out of heaven. (cf. 2Pet 2:4; Rev 12:7-9) Secondly, there is no v. 39 in Matthew 20. Thirdly, it is a valid assumption that since in heaven, i.e., the New Heaven and New Earth where the saints will have their new "celestial" bodies and where they will not marry and thus have no need of sexuality, that angels who also possess a "celestial" body (a body meet for living in the spiritual realm) would likewise be void of sexual relations. Further, nowhere in Scripture do we read that angels beget offspring.

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hisalone said:

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CovenantInBlood said:
6) In Job, Satan came in "AMONG" the sons of God, but he is never himself counted in their current number. In Job, the sons of God are EXCLUSIVELY unfallen angels. In this sense, Satan was formerly a son of God. Furthermore, William has provided some excellent citations showing that believers are also called "sons of God," which is perfectly compatible with the "sons of God" being the godly line of Seth in Gen. 6.
I don't see this being a problem, because the fallen angels were called the sons of God in order to understand who they were, weren't they the sons of God when they were tempted to sleep with the daughters of men? When did they fall? Was it necessarily when Satan fell?
The term "sons of God" always and everywhere refers to those who are in union and communion with God vs. those who are God's adversaries. Job 1:6 makes this crystal clear; i.e., there was a marked distinction between those "sons of God" who congregated before God and Satan who came without invitation. Notice God's words, "Whence comest thou?" (Where did you come from?) He was not part of the "sons of God" but was an adversary of God, the description of which Scripture speaks in myriad places. Lastly, you again make a chasmic leap by suggesting that the fallen angels were "sons of God when they were tempted to sleep with the daggers of men". There is no evidence whatsoever that angels slept with human women. There is no evidence whatsoever to suggest that the falling out of some of the angels was due to their lusting after human women and took upon human form in order to impregnate them. Let's stay with what Scripture SAYS and not fall victim to vain imaginations (Rom 1:21; 2Cor 10:5).

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hisalone said:

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CovenantInBlood said:
9) Lastly, and this should be emphasized, Tom Brown's interpretation of Gen. 6 is a fundamental necessity for him to be able to propagate his false & heretical teachings about deliverance and exorcism.
I agree he twists certain things, however, the overall premise is feasible. Although his motives may be wrong, it doesn't mean his basic point is wrong. I still believe this to be very feasible, and have not been convinced to attribute the verses to Seth's line, for me to do that would be a stretch, I can't make that leap.
It's not a leap to understand that there are two "lines" of men among the human race. This is Reformed Theology 101. It begins with Gen 3:15 and ends in Revelation; the elect/chosen of God and those who are His enemies. The same is said of the angelic host. (cf. 1Tim 5:21) It is far more feasible to understand this truth than it is to embrace a view based upon speculation, eisogesis and fanciful ideas.

Yes, people are "free" to embrace whatever ideas they so choose. However, as Christians we are bound to scrutinize those ideas under the light of Scripture as it is written to determine whether they are in fact true or false. To do this one is obligated to be faithful to language, grammar, context and the whole of God's Word and not inject presuppositions into it in order to justify some idea one finds particularly appealing.

In His grace,


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simul iustus et peccator

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