The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum Demons and fallen angels

I'm making a deduction, not an assumption; much less a mere speculation. It is true enough that not all areas of the Mosaic law were in effect prior to Sinai, and those same areas not in effect then are no longer in effect since the first coming of Christ. Such would be laws having specifically to do with the nation-state of ancient Israel and the ceremonial laws relating to the Mosaic economy of worship (with its priests, temple, altars, sacrifices, feast days, etc.). However, the general principle which prohibits intermarriage between the people of God and unbelievers is explicitly carried over even into the New Testament, as I demonstrated with II Cor. 6:14-18, and it is grounded in the prohibition against idolatry, i.e., the First Commandment; likewise, the Ten Commandments are still in effect, and no doubt they were in effect prior to Sinai as well.

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As for God being grieved that He made man, this view helps us understand Gen. 6:6 better. He was grieved because of what the fallen angels had done. Their actions required Him to destroy the whole race except for Noah and his family. This was another verse that I had difficulty with, but it makes more sense now.

No, this does not make more sense. In fact, it makes less sense. God was grieved that He created [b]man (v. 6), for "the wickedness of [b]man was great on the earth, and every intent of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually" (v. 5). It nowhere says he was grieved because of an unholy race of human-angel hybrids, as I've said before. To support your interpretation, you have to import so many ideas into the text that are absolutely uncorroborated anywhere else in Scripture. This is why I say that your interpretation is [i]pure speculation.


I'm still trying to figure out what questions the Sethite intermarriage interpretation presents to your mind that are so irresolvable. I've already given you some of my irresolvable questions with the copulating fallen angels interpretation; you might want to take a crack at answering those?


Again, WHERE does the text say anything about mankind being led and influenced by unholy human-angel hybrids? WHERE does God express His displeasure with the actions of fallen angels? WHY does God direct His wrath specifically against MANKIND, and not against these unholy human-angel hybrids and fallen angels?


You'll recall that man was set in charge over the animals (Gen. 1:29); and the suffering of all creation is due to the sinfulness of mankind (Rom. 8:19-22).


Now you're excusing yourself from the hard work of understanding the Scripture because you think I make "assumptions." Okay, here's my "assumption": God's word is consistent with itself throughout. I've shown you how my position is corroborated by the teaching of the whole of Scripture. You have not done the same for your position.