Originally Posted by john
Just to press a little. Were not Lydia and the Philippian jailer Gentiles? And yet their families were baptized even though they did not have millenia of Jewish heritage?

How do you determine if an infant/very young child is old enough to no longer be subject to his parents choice but be required to make a profession of faith?
1. True enough that the Gentiles did not have this Jewish heritage/teaching/practice, but the apostles and disciples of the Lord at that time who were evangelizing the Gentile world did have that heritage to which they adhered. So again, the baptizing of infants of believing parent(s) was the God-ordained covenantal command that continued without abrogation for the Church. It was a matter of teaching the Gentiles about God's covenant with believers and their children along with all the truths concerning God, the Messiah, Church polity, etc., etc., that had to be done. Gentiles were virtually totally ignorant of true religion compared to the Jews who had to be reminded and corrected of these things.

2. This matter of the demarcation line as to age has always been a subject of debate. I think one could say safely and rightly say that there is no definitive age since age isn't the determining factor but rather the ability of a child to rightly understand the Gospel, discern conviction of sin and know their need of Christ. Some, particularly the continental churches, set the age at 16 for being admitted into membership. Others leave it open. Just recently, we became aware of an OPC congregation that allowed children as young as 7 to make a confession of faith and be received into membership; an anomaly to be sure in the OPC.

Do you have any thoughts on this age question?

In His grace,

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simul iustus et peccator

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