Pilgrim,
2. Furthermore your own references show Jesus (the Word) creating the universe, ...
a. I included the Chalcedon Creed because it makes clear that Jesus, the incarnate Son of God is both divine and human, i.e., He possesses two distinct natures. But it goes on to warn of the errors which had already been introduced into the Church, which were to either intermix (confuse) the two natures or to make the two natures mutually exclusive (divide) the two natures. Your error is to 'confuse' the two natures and to deny the historicity of the incarnation; making Jesus eternal.
b. In the above quote, you demonstrate this error by equating the "Word" with Jesus. Although it is a common error, it is a very serious one and an error/heresy which the apostle John was inspired to write against in both his gospel and epistles. Yet, it is amazing to me how many people simply don't comprehend what John wrote.
John 1:1-3 (ASV) "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made through him; and without him was not anything made that hath been made."
Thus, the 'logos', the 'Word' was GOD and made all things. Then moving on to verse 14 we read the inspired text:
John 1:14 (ASV) "And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us (and we beheld his glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father), full of grace and truth."
Here John gives us the very essence of biblical Christianity; God condescended to appear on earth having taken upon Himself humanity, aka: incarnation. The purpose of writing these words was to dispel the error of the Gnostics who denied this very truth.
So, let's take your statement and see how it stands up to what John wrote. You believe that the "Word = Jesus" (1:1-3). Taking that proposition, the text would read, "In the beginning was
the Word Jesus, and
the Word Jesus was with God, and
the Word Jesus was God. The same [Jesus] was in the beginning with God. All things were made through him [Jesus]; and without him [Jesus] was not anything made that hath been made."
Moving on down to verse 14 and continuing with your proposition, the text would read, "And
the Word Jesus became flesh [Jesus], and dwelt among us (and we beheld his glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father), full of grace and truth."
Hopefully, the fallacy of your view is now very clear... "Jesus became Jesus"??? The main point that John is trying to make which evidently has escaped you is that GOD, GOD the SON, the second person of the Trinity took upon human flesh, a body in space and time, born of a woman and that person was Jesus of Nazareth. Jesus was born and came into existence not having existed beforehand. The SON of GOD, who took upon that human body is eternal. Jesus in his humanity did not create anything for he was part of God's creation in the 1st century B.C. GOD the Son created all things along with the Father and the Spirit. It is proper to speak of the CHRIST (title... not a name) created all things for it is referring to the divinity of the incarnate SON of GOD.
BTW, you would do well to trash the NIV and get a bible that isn't the product of dynamic equivalence, e.g., the KJV, ASV, NKJB, ESV.
