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Joe said:

The plan of God before the foundation of world (Eph 1) was that His Son should die for His elect. This was pleasing to God—after all He initiated it (it was His eternal plan, allowed it to come forth, but more than allowing, it was His determinate counsel, etc.). In so much as God’s plan of redemption was carried out He was pleased. This reveals His sovereignty in all things, (“ye shall know that I am the LORD your God”), etc. There is a sense in which God is pleased in “all things” that happen, in that His sovereignty is being displayed, etc (Rom 9:17, 22-23), but He himself is not accountable for sin, etc. (yes, there is a mystery in all this...). Now, God was also displeased as well as He hates the actions of sinners—and the sinner themselves, etc. and He holds them morally responsible, etc.

Joe,

I agree with you everything you said here, but I'm not sure the exact question I had in mind has been answered. That's probably because I haven't been explaining the question I want to ask very well. I'm not even sure I have it formulated in my own mind either. Maybe when I can get a better handle on a more precise way to phrase it, I'll come back and revisit this topic.

John