The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum Predestination

I hold to Infralapsarianism vs. Supralapsarianism. For an article describing what these are, see here: Supralapsarianism and Infralapsarianism

Here is how the logical order of God's decree(s) looks according to both:

Infralapsarianism
1. the decree to create the world and (all) men
2. the decree that (all) men would fall
3. the election of some fallen men to salvation in Christ (and the reprobation of the others)
4. the decree to redeem the elect by the cross work of Christ
5. the decree to apply Christ's redemptive benefits to the elect

Supralapsarianism
1. the election of some men to salvation in Christ (and the reprobation of the others)
2. the decree to create the world and both kinds of men
3. the decree that all men would fall
4. the decree to redeem the elect, who are now sinners, by the cross work of Christ
5. the decree to apply Christ's redemptive benefits to these elect sinners

Now, once again, there is NO THING... NOTHING which exists nor happens apart from God's eternal decree and providence. Scripture knows nothing of God "choosing to let xxxx happen and then determining how to rectify the situation".

The prime example of how this works out is the crucifixion of Christ. Scripture describes the entire event according to God's eternal decree which he gave to the prophets of old to declare throughout history. If God did not decree something, then prophecy would never be certain... think about it!!