The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum Common Grace or Uncommon Grace?

A week or so ago I stumbled upon the web page of the Protestant Reformed Church. This denomination seemed to have their origin somewhere in the 1920's due to a disagreement on common grace.
I've been reading a bit more about it and didn't realize that there are quite a number of different opinions about common grace. Well, okay, I am not a trained theologian and there are so many things to read; can't get to it all

My question is: What is the real teaching of Scripture on common grace? The PRC rejects the doctrine of common grace.

You can read the PRC's rejection of common grace HERE

There is also eg. an article by Herman Bavinck on Calvin and common grace which you can find on THIS page.

Thanks

Johan

Johan,

I am personally familiar with the PRC and their teaching on "common grace" due to the fact that I studied at their seminary for a year. This subject was one of the major contentions which led Herman Hoeksema to break away from the CRC (Christian Reformed Church) in 1924. The CRC has gone "down the tubes" since that day and changed their original view on common grace.

What is the real teaching of Scripture on common grace? Well, that depends upon who you ask!

My view is:

1. Common Grace is admittedly a 'misnomer', since I hold that God's 'grace' is always salvific. So, it cannot be 'common', i.e., given to all men. I prefer to use the phrase "common benevolence".
2. God exhibits His goodness and kindness to all men in myriad ways, e.g., food, shelter, worldly success, good health, etc. And generally speaking, He has chosen to not judge all men immediately for their sins. Again, I much prefer to call this benevolence (Titus 3:4) and refrain from referring to this as "love" (Paul, in Titus 3:4, uses the word 'love', but philew brotherly love and not agape holy unconditional love) for I believe in the vast majority of places where God'slove is mentioned, it is restricted to His elect, thus it is salvific.
3. Unregenerate men, women and children are totally incapable of doing good, i.e., that which is pleasing to God. Yet, they are capable and often do relative good, i.e., others are benefited from their acts. These 'good deeds' are still sinful in and of themselves and are done not of faith but for self, which means they will be brought before the bar of God and used as evidence against them and their condemnation.
4. I do not hold, as does the PRC, that God shows no kindness to anyone other than the elect and anything which could be construed as heavenly kindness is actually God's hatred toward them which He uses to further their condemnation. Scripture teaches that the goodness of God is real (Rom 2:4) and is to be a motivation for sinners to repent of their sins.

Much more could be said, of course... books have been written on the subject. But this is just my very brief synopsis of where I stand on the subject.

Pilgrim,

Thanks for your reply!!

I did feel a bit uncomfortable with the view of the PRC. One sees eg. that unbelievers sometimes have very extraordinary gifts and in my opinion that also shows God's benevolence (to use your term) toward the unregenerate. However, because of the of the hardness of their hearts, this will actually "witness" against them on the day of judgement (Romans 1:18-22).

Would it be correct to say that God's benevolence toward the unregenerate is for the sake of His elect? I say this for two reasons: First, if God simply left the unregenerate to themselves and the full consequences of their sin, life for the elect would have been unbearable. Here I think of Matt. 24:22 : "And unless those days were shortened, no flesh would be saved; but for the elect's sake those days will be shortened." I realize that Jesus is talking about a specific time in history but can one also say that to some extent it applies to all of history?

Second, God also has His elect somewhere in the generations of the unbelievers and unregenerate. I think of Rahab and Ruth in the OT and eg. Lydia in the NT. There are so many present day examples as well of men and women coming to faith in our Lord Jesus who comes from a totally heathen background. Can one not say that God showed his benevolence to eg. Lydia's past generations because she is amongst the elect?

Is there therefore a much deeper reason for God's benevolence towards the unregenerate, ie. for the sake of Christ and His elect?

Johan

Johan,

I think we are on the same page, so to speak. It is my view that ALL things are first and foremost demonstrations of God's power and glory. And, secondarily, ALL things are by God's providence done for the benefit of Christ and His Church. And thirdly, even though the reprobate will be judged and condemned to eternal punishment, the benevolence shown to them is genuinely benevolent, contra the hyper-Calvinist view which believes that there is no benevolence shown to the reprobate. Anything which appears to be kindness from God is in actuality only done for the purpose of damning them.