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Richard in another discussion thread said this: I understand that as a member of an American Presbyterian church such as the OPC that your church order would partake of much of the western culture. But there is no biblical basis for baptizing the infants and not also baptizing the wife of a man who professes Christ. Custom, I understand. But the Scripture, of course, does not make such an assertion. Acts 8:12 is vague on the subject and Acts 16:15 deals specifically with a woman who seems to be the head of a household for whatever reason. So, I don't see a biblical basis for withholding baptism from a wife. It is interesting to me that American paedos will use 1 Cor. 7:14 to justify the teaching of paedobaptism, but will not use the same passage to justify the baptism of a spouse.

Now I understand the reasoning (although I disagree with it) for baptizing infants even if there is but one believing person in the household. However, I must say that I can't see the reasoning from scripture or the Westminster Confession that an unbelieving spouse should be baptized because the head of the household has been baptized.

Also Richard I'd like an explanation with respect to Lydia in Acts 16:14-15. She apparently was the head of the household. Now I can't see that she was married but let us suppose that she was, does this mean since she was the head her husband (who may have been unbelieving) was baptized also? Does this mean we are to baptize unbelieving husbands?

Please elucidate.