The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum The impeccability of Christ

Well one could speculate all day long, however the doctrine of the Sovereignty of God is in no way lessened by God’s ability to give Jesus the choice to sin any more than it is lessened by giving that choice to the FIRST Adam or even YOU. God is still God and He is still sovereign! God trusted His Son! We do grave dishonor to the persons of the Trinity, if we suggest that God could not trust His Son with such an important characteristic of His being—for Christ had be to a “real man.” If it were impossible in the life of Christ for Him to sin, then Jesus could not be a substitutionary sacrifice for sinful man. Indeed, He would not actually be human at all but a God with merely the appearance of humanity (Docetism, which the confessions do not affirm). There is a clear relationship between Adam (the FIRST MAN) and Christ (the SECOND and LAST MAN; 1 Cor 15:21-22, 45, 47; Heb 4:15-16). Only a Being who can sin can be tempted. Was Jesus, the man, ever tempted (Matt 4)?

What did Peter say about Jesus? Did he say, "Jesus was a good Man, but He had a few teeny tiny faults? Did Peter say that Jesus was the best Man who ever lived, but He was not perfect"? NO, may it NEVER be! In 1 Peter 2:22, Peter says that Jesus did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth. This is an amazing statement, but it wouldn’t be if Jesus could not sin! After all if the disciple(s) knew Jesus could not sin—then this is NO BIG DEAL. So why was this important to Peter? Peter saw and knew the temptations of Christ were genuine. He saw Him literally overcome them and thus his testimony! In 1 Peter 3:18, we learn,

This is a critical point. Christ has once suffered for sins, the RIGHTEOUS for the UNRIGHTEOUS (some translations use JUST for the UNJUST), but how was Jesus JUST? Was Jesus JUST by imputation or was Jesus JUST by fulfilling the law himself? Do you believe that the Divine nature of Christ had to be imputed to Christ for him to be JUST, or was Jesus JUST because in His human nature He did not sin and He fulfilled all RIGHTEOUSNESS? If by imputation then the God-Man would be determined not to be a Saviour at all! This would raise the question of the sinlessness of Christ’s human nature—Why was not Christ JUST in himself? The VERY sinless HUMANITY of Christ would be brought into question!!! But, Luke did not question it did he? Luke declared, But ye denied the Holy and Righteous One (Acts 3:14). Luke knew who was holy and righteous.

In 1 John 3:5 we read, in him is no sin. But why is this so significant if there was no genuine SECOND Adam, with the possibility to sin? Even Jesus enemies attest to the possibility that Christ could sin. In Matthew 27:4 Judas said, I have sinned in that I betrayed innocent blood. Now Judas said this about the very Christ he saw everyday. It amazed this reprobate, but why if he did not think that Christ could have sinned? Consider the criminal who died next to Jesus. This man mocked Jesus (Matt 27:44), but as he watched Jesus dying something happened which made him change his mind. What did this man think of Jesus (Luke 23:41)? He said,

But, why is this significant if Jesus could not sin? Only if Jesus could have sinned would this be such a great cry in the courts of the whole earth! One day Jesus said, Which of you convinceth Me of sin? (John 8:46) " Why is this significant if Christ could not sin? Later when Jesus was arrested and put on trial, His enemies had a very difficult time finding individuals who would testify against Him (Matt 26:59-60), but they looked didn’t they! Why did they look if Jesus could not sin? Because Jesus was truly a man who could be and was literally tempted! May I point out here that even Jesus enemies knew this—how much more should His saints!

In Matthew 3:17, at the baptism of Jesus, the Father spoke from heaven and said, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased. You would have to say, well this is no big deal! SO WHAT, after all if Jesus could not sin and there was no genuine temptation—why be pleased God?—man why did you say these words God?—Jesus was your little robot that could not sin—no big deal right? WRONG. God was well pleased because Jesus was fulfilling that which He and His Father planned in eternity past! Jesus is not a robot, but has an actual will that submitted to the Father (Luke 22:42). Christ was fulfilling God's redemptive plan against every temptation and the very Devil himself! The Lord faced Satan as a Man. The SECOND MAN ADAM, walking in the Spirit and using and relying upon the Word of God defeated Satan! As a Man, Christ was always filled with the Spirit (Luke 4:1). As a Man, Christ always stood firmly upon the Word of God-- "IT IS WRITTEN," but why if He could not sin? He could simply say I cannot sin, get thee hence Satan! However, the Devil left Him only for a time. I wonder why oh why Mr. Devil did your waste you time tempting the One some say could not be tempted? Why return (Luke 4:13)? As a Man, Christ always had His full armour on (Eph 6:10-18), but why if He could not sin? As a Man, Christ always was alert to temptations, but why, if He could not sin? Why oh why Mr. Sperartus do you not believe Jesus is a man? The devils believe and tremble!

Thanks be unto God who always causeth us to triumph in Christ (2 Cor. 2:14). Of course, if Christ never triumphed over sin like we have to there is not much to sing about! <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/drop.gif" alt="" />