The instructions given for the Lords Table are not the same as Baptism. There aren't any examples of "household" communions. One is a sign, administered once. The other is a continuing practice.

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For by the same reasoning one can conclude that we should baptize all the peoples of earth, since we don’t know who the elect are. The reason, I would think, that you want baptism applied to the children of professing believers (which aren’t necessary true believers) is because you believe that God’s word teaches that the children of professing believers are to be baptized. This, however, is not at all the same reason you just gave, which is that you cannot know who the elect are.

Except, as you stated, I don't believe such. <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/grin.gif" alt="" /> I believe, as Biblical example shows, that professors and their children are proper recipients. What I was arguing against is that baptism cannot be assigned to the elect alone in practice.


God bless,

william