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I particularly liked what Ron D said on the matter. And agreed with him when he said "The reason, I would think, that you want baptism applied to the children of professing believers (which aren’t necessary true believers) is because you believe that God’s word teaches that the children of professing believers are to be baptized. This, however, is not at all the same reason you just gave, which is that you cannot know who the elect are."

Except that Ron placed words in my mouth. I never stated this was a reason to baptize but as an argument against baptism being administered only to the elect. As I have stated, repeatedly, I believe scripture upholds the household administration. I now hope this false claim ends.

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My question is how exactly is the covenant different because it indeed it is. Jer 31

Again, the real question is "who are the proper recipients of baptism?".


God bless,

william