Ron,<br><br>Let me say right out front, that I enter into this discussion with much reluctance.... but I feel compelled to do so no less than I felt of necessity to expose the errors being promoted by "Drs. MacMahon". [img]http://www.the-highway.com/w3timages/icons/igiveup.gif" alt="igiveup" title="igiveup[/img]<blockquote><font size=1>In reply to:</font><hr>[color:"blue"]I suppose we differ in that I treat my little ones as Christians, who definitely stand in the need of prayer and nurturing in the Lord. They need to be converted to Christ, but I can say based upon the evidence that “Jesus died for your sins,” just as I say it to my wife.</font><hr></blockquote><p>First off, let's deal with what appears to be a direct contradiction, a horrid thing to suggest of a VanTillian to be sure! [img]http://www.the-highway.com/w3timages/icons/laugh.gif" alt="laugh" title="laugh[/img]<br><br>First, you state that you "treat my little ones as Christians . . . in need of prayer and nurturing in the Lord." IF . . . one is considered to be a Christian, then of necessity we are confessing that as best as we are able, we are believing that the individual, adult or child, has been ingrafted into Christ by faith and thus lives as one justified before God, having received remission of sins, the adoption, etc.... and whose greatest responsibility and need is that of SANCTIFICATION, aka: "nurture" in the Lord. Such a one is also qualified to attend to the Lord's Table if he/she is able to "discern the body". But immediately before and then again after this statement you then said, "An infant of a believing parent will need to repent of his sins and place his trust in Christ alone for his justification before God. . . . They need to be converted to Christ, . . ." To my limited knowledge of the Bible and theology, a "Christian" is one who HAS BEEN justified, not one who NEEDS TO BE justified. Is my understanding of the definition of Christian and/or of Justification correct? or is either one or both in error?<br><br>Now, on what basis do you "presume" that your covenant children are "Christian", i.e., justified in Christ? You say this: ". . . but I can say based upon the evidence that “Jesus died for your sins,” just as I say it to my wife. Now, I can certainly understand how you can rightly say that "Jesus died for your sins," in regard to your wife, who it is "presumed" has made a valid profession of faith. But what is the basis for your "presuming" that your infant child was atoned for? This should get us to the crux of the issue, I "presume". [img]http://www.the-highway.com/w3timages/icons/grin.gif" alt="grin" title="grin[/img]<br><br>In His Grace,


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simul iustus et peccator

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