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Would you say God uses human means to effect His decree (transmission of original sin to Adam's progeny)? There does seem to be an order of corruption, whether chronological or logical, in your approach. The pure soul somehow acquires the guilt of original sin.
Well He definitely uses means to create the body (the parents, sperm/egg), however IMO not the soul…. I think the immediacy (not using means) is more accurate than mediacy (using means) to create the soul as exampled in the original creation (the only example given us in Scripture regarding the creation of the soul)—I think the Christology issue is central to our understanding here…. While I do believe there is a logical order to corruption, me thinks going any further than I have is getting into mysteries which cannot be presently attested to…. (I will grant that the creationist view is not without its problems as well….). This whole issue though will errupt soon--cloning; Can we clone a soul? Can we clone total depravity in a soul? ....

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In an earlier thread, Pilgrim postulates that God could create a depraved soul. Asked " is there anything inconsistent with God immediately creating a depraved soul as part of the curse?"
This would be a viable option if I was not so attached to Berkhof on this issue…., as God “is only doing that which He Himself judged to be righteous.” Moreover, it is consistent with the creationist view ... and does not have problems in the area of Christology ...

There is another view being postulated by some like Dorner who states that both creationism and traducianism are correct and are merely different aspects of the whole truth—Traducianism = generic consciousness—and Creationism = God-consciousness, but this is not without its problems…..After examining all the views I still side with Berkhof and Creationism…and consider Traducianism as false for the reasons already given …

Reformed and Always Reforming,