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lookn4ward2heavn said:
Conversely, the call is not effectual for others because they are not chosen and for that ultimate reason God does not give them the capability to hear and repent. It may true that their inability to hear and repent is due to their own sin, and it may be true that because of their own sin they are deserving of damnation, but is it is precisely and only because they are not chosen that the call to salvation is not effectual; that is the true and ultimate reason.
To assert that the ultimate cause of one's damnation due to their rejection of the Gospel is God's you then make God the "Author of sin" as well as relieve all responsibility from the individual. God chose to NOT save the majority of Adam's fallen race, which decision is just. If God were obligated to save anyone, then it would not be of grace. It was God's design to appoint Adam as the Federal Head of the human race and to establish corporate solidarity. Due to Adam's transgression the entire human race was punished (made sinners). The penalty of Adam's transgression was two-fold: 1) ALL would have Adam's guilt imputed to them and 2) ALL would be born like unto Adam, i.e., with a corrupt nature. Thus by virtue of being human, ALL are under the just condemnation of God.

Now, if you choose to reject the biblical teaching of "imputation", you of necessity eliminate the work of Christ and the salvation merited by Him. For, it is by the "imputation" of righteousness that sinners are reconciled with God. This truth is indisputably set forth in Rom 5:12-18 and I Cor 15:21, 22. What you are left with is some form of synergism and the atonement reduces to nothing more than an example, e.g., Finney ended up with his bankrupt Governmental Theory of the atonement which provides no actual salvation at all.

For all intents and purposes, any other reasons underlying proposed are moot.

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lookn4ward2heavn said:
(2) Acts 13:48 – Did you get all that out of this one verse? In any case, it seems the deciding factor rests on the word “ordained.” the few references I’ve read do not seem to (e.g. Robertson Word Pictures) support the way you view the text. As such, your interpretation of the text is doubtful.

For my unscholarly self, I noticed:
(a) It doesn’t read, “pre-appointed” (NJKV) or “fore-ordained” (KJV).
(b) Your application of “ordain” in interpreting the text here is not used in the same way as in the other verses where the same Greek word occurs.
(c) Those who are appointed to eternal life are those who respond in faith to the message.

What I sense being conveyed by the verse is that God appoints believers for salvation; as many as believe, even so, they are “appointed to eternal like.”
Robertson's Word Pictures is not a Greek Lexicon but a commentary, if that. Thus it has no salient use to the discussion. If you would consult a recognized Greek Lexicon you would see that the word does indeed mean "to appoint", etc.


tas'-so

a prolonged form of a primary verb (which latter appears only in certain tenses); to arrange in an orderly manner, i.e. assign or dispose (to a certain position or lot):--addict, appoint, determine, ordain, set.


Personally, I have far more trust in my understanding of Koine Greek that yours. Thus the text does say, "as many as were appointed, ordained, determined (to salvation; understood) believed. The proximate cause of their believe was their being ordained to do so. (cf. Eph 1:4-11) You are deliberately ignoring the grammatical order and reversing what the text actually says; "those who believed were ordained" rather than "those who were ordained, believed". To be "ordained to eternal life" is the same as being ordained to be united with Christ by faith, salvation, et al, since eternal life only belongs to those who believe on Christ. And those who believe on Christ only do so IF God the Spirit sovereignly enlivens them; aka: born from above, born again, made alive, etc.

In His grace,


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simul iustus et peccator

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