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C.M.H said:
I understand """Php 1:29 For it has been granted to you that for the sake of Christ you should not only believe in him but also suffer for his sake""" A little bit differently.. It appears as if you, OR I, have taken the scripture backwards... I read this and it appears to me as though the author was saying that what was granted to me was the SUFFERING for Him. In essence what I felt this passage to say was that I already believed in Him BUT for HIS NAMES SAKE I would ALSO suffer.. My suffering would be for His names sake.. Does that make sense? Again, I have never been taught the proper order that sentences in Greek and Hebrew were organized yet I know Spanish is organized differently and I may be taking something out of place??

Here is Youngs Literal Translation which follows the Greek very closely. Pay close attention to the words "not only" and "but also." You will see that "granted" refers to both "believe" and "suffer."

Phi 1:29 because to you it was granted, on behalf of Christ, not only to believe in him, but also on behalf of him to suffer . . .


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C.M.H said:
Assuming that the reformed theology is correct, why are there still commands to us in the Bible?? If God is really in control of each action of my heart, mind, and soul... Would He not "make" me love my neighbors as myself??

While it is true that there are Biblical examples of God's intervention directly into the heart of man, (the hardening of pharoah's heart for instance), generally speaking, God's elect are not forced to do anything. A good passage to keep in mind in this regard is -

Phi 2:12 work out your own salvation with fear and trembling,
Phi 2:13 for it is God who works in you, both to will and to work for his good pleasure.

God works in us in our struggle against sin, but He doesn't force us to do everything right.


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C.M.H said:
There are commands given here that we should lay our lives down just as His was laid down for us. For if we cannot find compassion and pity for our brothers, how can God be in us? I know non-christians who find pity on others.. They will help those in need not looking for a reward and not looking for recognition but because they understand that there is another human being in need and they have the means to help.. Is this not the same thing spoken of in 1 John?? If they have the love for others that is spoken of, could they not experience the love of God??

Maybe down the road these people will turn to Christ, maybe not. But it seems that I know more people than not who would give money, clothes, food, and their time and effort to help others because they feel compassion towards them than I do people that would not.. And not all of these people are Christian.

There are many unregenerate people who do good things, but this won't help them if they reject God's provision for salvation. Do they believe in Christ or do they reject Him?

I would like to expand on all of this a little more but I have to get to work. Just let me know if what I've said thus far is helpful or not.

Jim

Jud 1:3 . . . contend for the faith that was once for all delivered to the saints.