The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum For Whom Did Christ Die?

I read the posts and some thoughts came to mind. Is the question talking about whether Christ's sacrifice was sufficient for all sins and all men? Or are we just talking about the application of the atonement? I believe that Christ's death was sufficient for all men, but only those to whom it is applied were going to be the beneficiaries of it.

The word "for" in the question can be misapplied or misunderstood. Christ's death is available "for" all who call upon Him, so in that sense He did die for "all" men. It seems to me that God would be considered as not being truthful if salvation were not available to all when the Word says "whoever calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved". Rom. 10:13.

For whom did Christ die? For God so loved the world that He gave.... It doesn't say for God so loved the elect. Now we go back to the post about "Who Does God Love" I believe as posted in that thread that God's love is extensive, not limited to just the elect as the majority seem to believe. I really would like more time to be able to write more on that subject, but my time has of late been consumed in other things, however, silence should not be thought of conceding the point.

I don't disagree with what has been posted, just that the question isn't entirely clear to me as to what is meant by the question for whom did Christ die? is it asking for the specific application or the general sufficiency of His sacrifice?