Dear ReformedSBC,

So glad you asked. I assume you take these passages as proof for unconditional election and perseverance of the saints. In vs 37, where it says "All that the Father giveth me shall come to me;" some may take this as absolute proof that everyone who is predestined for salvation will come to Christ with no exceptions. But who does God the Father give to Christ? I believe that God gives a person to Christ when they humble themselves and repent when convicted by the Holy Spirit. This passage does not say that a person cannot resist the Holy Spirit's conviction. In fact, the scriptures affirm that this already occurs. Act 7:51 "Ye stiffnecked and uncircumcised in heart and ears, ye do always resist the Holy Ghost: as your fathers did, so do ye."

Concerning the phrase, "and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out," some may take this to mean that no person can ever be cast out if they are a true believer, but this is not the meaning of this passage. What it means is that Christ will not reject a person that comes to Him, regardless of their race, gender or past sins. But if you want to get technical, it is not Christ who casts a person out if they fall away. John 15:1-2 says, "I am the true vine, and my Father is the husbandman. Every branch in me that beareth not fruit he taketh away: and every branch that beareth fruit, he purgeth it, that it may bring forth more fruit." So then it is not Christ who casts the apostate away, but God the Father.

And if you think, "No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him. And I will raise him up on the last day" is proof that a person must be chosen by God before he/she is saved, you are absolutely right. I too believe that a man cannot be saved unless God draws him first. And just as God's many promises of blessing to Israel (Deuteronomy 7:13, 30:16 ect...) were contingent on their obedience to the voice of God, so is the promise of the resurrection of the righteous. Good question.


In Christ,
Josh